ISTQB Sample Paper 5

1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake

2 Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true

3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification

4 Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 9999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist

8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access

9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing

11 Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

13 Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
14 Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

15 Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet

17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations

19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis

20 Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team

23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file

26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

27 Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code

28 Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

29 Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool

30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool

31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes

32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing

34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729

36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined

37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines

38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions

40 Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users

Question number Correct answer
1 C
2 C
3 E
4 E
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 E
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 A
30 E
31 E
32 B
33 E
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B

ISTQB Sample Paper 4

Q1 A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:

a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect

Q2
Regression testing should be performed:

v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x, y & z are false

Q3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except

a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test specifications

Q4 When should testing be stopped?

a) when all the planned tests have been run
b) when time has run out
c) when all faults have been fixed correctly
d) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

Q5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?

a) 1000, 50000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999, 100000

Q6 Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design normally takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b) iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c) i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d) i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false

Q7 Non-functional system testing includes:

a) testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d) testing for functions that should not exist

Q8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?

a) auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b) status accounting of configuration items
c) identification of test versions
d) controlled library access

Q9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?

a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

Q10 What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to determine when to stop testing

Q11 Consider the following statements:

i. an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments.

a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false

Q12 Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?

Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Q13 Consider the following statements:

i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Q14 Functional system testing is:

a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times

Q15 Incidents would not be raised against:

a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users

Q16 Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents

Q17 Maintenance testing is:

a) updating tests when the software has changed
b) testing a released system that has been changed
c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d) testing to maintain business advantage

Q18 What can static analysis NOT find?

a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

Q19 Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

a) state transition testing
b) LCSAJ
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis

Q20 Beta testing is:

a) performed by customers at their own site
b) performed by customers at the software developer's site
c) performed by an Independent Test Team
d) performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an independent system test team?

i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis

a) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b) developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c) developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d) developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii

Q22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:

a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing from a business perspective

Q23 Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?

a) black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b) white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique


Q24 Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

Q25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) calculating expected outputs
b) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c) recording test inputs
d) reading test values from a data file

Q26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

a) re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers

Q27 Expected results are:

a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) most useful when specified in advance
d) derived from the code

Q28 What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:

a) walkthrough
b) inspection
c) management review
d) post project review

Q29 Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

a) component testing
b) non-functional system testing
c) user acceptance testing
d) maintenance testing

Q30 What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?

a) setting up forms and databases
b) analysing metrics and improving processes
c) writing the documents to be inspected
d) time spent on the document outside the meeting

Q31 Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

a) to find faults in the software
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems

Q32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:

1. led by the author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3

Q33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?

a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing

Q34 Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?

a) expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

Q35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729

Q36 The cost of fixing a fault:

a) is not important
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined

Q37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?

a) what is not to be tested
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines

Q38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?

a) no, because they apply to development documentation
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

Q39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing?

a) measuring response times
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions

Q40 Error guessing is best used:

a) after more formal techniques have been applied
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live

Qn No Correct answer
1 C
2 C
3 D
4 D
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 C
15 D
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 B
20 A
21 A
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 C
28 B
29 D
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 D
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 C
38 C
39 B
40 A

ISQTB Sample Paper 2

1.Software testing activities should start

a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle

2.Faults found by users are due to:

a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing

3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?

a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release

4. which of the following statements is not true

a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:

a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above

6.In which order should tests be run?

a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of

7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?

a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above

8. Which is not true-The black box tester

a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses

9. A test design technique is

a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)

a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system

11. An incident logging system

a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.

12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:

a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say

13. Coverage measurement

a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

14. When should you stop testing?

a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run


15. Which of the following is true?

a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?

a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique

17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?

1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

19 Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?

a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security

20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?

a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis

21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?

a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2




22.which of the following is the component test standard?


a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

23 which of the following statements are true?

a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.

24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down

25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?

a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing

26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:

a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test

27. Which of the following is a static test?

a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test

28. Which of the following is the odd one out?

a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional

29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:

values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected


which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?

a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22


30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?

a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21

1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b

ISQTB Sample Paper 1

1.      An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004

      The boundary values for testing this field are

a.       0,1900,2004,2005

b.      1900, 2004

c.       1899,1900,2004,2005

d.      1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

2. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
1. System testing
2. Usability testing
3. Performance testing
4. Both b & c

3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
1. Data tester
2. Boundary tester
3. Capture/Playback
4. Output comparator.

4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
1. Statement Coverage
2. Pole Coverage
3. Condition Coverage
4. Path Coverage

5. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
1. Functionality
2. Usability
3. Supportability
4. Maintainability

6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
1. Stub
2. Driver
3. Proxy
4. None of the above

7. Boundary value testing

a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests

b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes

c. Tests combinations of input circumstances

d. Is used in white box testing strategy

8. Pick the best definition of quality

a. Quality is job one

b. Zero defects

c. Conformance to requirements

d. Work as designed

9. Fault Masking is

a. Error condition hiding another error condition

b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

c. Masking a fault by developer

d. Masking a fault by a tester

10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
1. Lack of technical documentation
2. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
3. Lack of training
4. Lack of Objectivity

11.  During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

a.       When the code is complete.

b.      When the design is complete.

c.       When the software requirements have been approved.

4. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who

a. Takes minutes of the meeting

b. Mediates between people

c. Takes telephone calls

d. Writes the documents to be reviewed

13. Given the Following program

IF X <>

THEN Statement 1;

ELSE IF Y >= Z

THEN Statement 2;

END

McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

14. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -

…………

if (Condition 1)

then statement 1

else statement 2

fi

if (Condition 2)

then statement 3

fi

…………

a. Test Cases

b. 3 Test Cases

c. 4 Test Cases

d. Not achievable

15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?

a. Requirements

b. Design

c. Code

d. Decision table

16. “How much testing is enough?”

a. This question is impossible to answer

b. This question is easy to answer

c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements

d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

17. A common test technique during component test is

a. Statement and branch testing

b. Usability testing

c. Security testing

d. Performance testing

18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.

a. Missing Statements

b. Unused Branches

c. Dead Code

d. Unused Statement

19. Independent Verification & Validation is

a. Done by the Developer

b. Done by the Test Engineers

c. Done By Management

d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?

a. Defects

b. Trends analysis

c. Test Effectiveness

d. Time Spent Testing

Answers

1 c

2 d

3 c

4 b

5 c

6 b

7 b

8 c

9 a

10 d

11 c

12 b

13 b

14 c
15 a

16 c

17 a

18 a

19 d

20 c